Q: Why is e to the i pi equal to -1?

Physicist: This equation (e^{i \pi} = -1) was recently voted one of the most famous equations ever.  That isn’t part of the answer, it’s just interesting.

First, you’ll find (by plugging them into a graphing calculator and graphing) that:

1) Sin(x) = x - \frac{x^3}{3!} + \frac{x^5}{5!} - \frac{x^7}{7!} + \frac{x^9}{9!} - \cdots

2) Cos(x) = 1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} - \frac{x^6}{6!} + \frac{x^8}{8!} - \cdots

3) e^x = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} + \frac{x^5}{5!} + \cdots

Where N! = 1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3 \cdots N.

These are called “Taylor expansions” of “Sine”, “Cosine”, and “e to the x”.  If you were to continue the patterns above forever, then you would find that the equality is exact.  There is some very exciting math to back me up on this, but for now just trust.

Know that i^2 = - 1.  This is how you define i.  Therefore, i^1 = i, i^2 = -1, i^3 = -i, i^4 = 1, i^5 = i , \ldots

Check it!:

e^{i x} = 1 + (ix) + \frac{(ix)^2}{2!} + \frac{(ix)^3}{3!} + \frac{(ix)^4}{4!} + \frac{(ix)^5}{5!} + \frac{(ix)^6}{6!} + \frac{(ix)^7}{7!} + \cdots = 1 + i x + \frac{i^2 x^2}{2!} + \frac{i^3 x^3}{3!} + \frac{i^4 x^4}{4!} + \frac{i^5 x^5}{5!} + \frac{i^6 x^6}{6!} + \frac{i^7 x^7}{7!} + \cdots = 1 + i x - \frac{x^2}{2!} - i \frac{x^3}{3!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} + i \frac{x^5}{5!} - \frac{x^6}{6!} - i \frac{x^7}{7!} + \cdots

and grouping terms that have “i” in them:

= ( 1 - \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^4}{4!} - \frac{x^6}{6!} + \cdots) + i ( x - \frac{x^3}{3!} + \frac{x^5}{5!} - \frac{x^7}{7!} + \cdots )

= Cos(x) + i Sin(x)

Holy crap! e^{ix} = Cos(x) + i Sin(x)!

This is the “Euler Equation”.  Or one of them at least.  Just plug in “x = \pi“.

e^{i \pi} = Cos(\pi) + i Sin(\pi) = (-1) + i(0) = -1.

So the trick is Euler’s equation, which is (surprisingly) true.

This entry was posted in -- By the Physicist, Equations. Bookmark the permalink.

30 Responses to Q: Why is e to the i pi equal to -1?

  1. Pingback: What the heck are imaginary numbers, how are they useful, and do they really exist? « Ask a Mathematician / Ask a Physicist

  2. Pingback: Q: What are complex numbers used for? « Ask a Mathematician / Ask a Physicist

  3. Pingback: Q: How are imaginary exponents defined? | Ask a Mathematician / Ask a Physicist

  4. Pingback: Q: Quaternions and Octonions: what? | Ask a Mathematician / Ask a Physicist

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *